Friday, September 05, 2008

Me, a goucho?

So, here's my "research question": in 1941, how oppressive was the government in Argentina. Here are the complications:
First of all, this is before Peron, so no one cares. From 1930-1946, historians couldn't care less about Argentina.
Second, the people who talk about Argentina will talk about the powerful fascist tendencies of Argentina during this period. The country was pro-Nazi. At the same time, they'll talk openly about a tiny degree of censorship in the radio (as opposed to the state-run censorship in England and Germany). The 1941 Argentineans discuss openly anti-Nazi organizations and demonstrations. Borges (Argentina's most famous writer) wrote anti-Nazi articles that he published under the "oppression" of this pro-Nazi regime. I mean, how oppresive could it be?
Third, some sources refer to an occurance in 1919 as an anti-Semitic pogrom, others refer to it as a middle class labor dispute. Well, which is it? does the term "Jew" and "middle class artisan" refer to the same thing in Argentina?
Fourth, shouldn't there be a book (ONE!!!) that clears all this up.

And five, why the hell do I have to know so much about Argenitina?

In other news, congratulations Intaki on the wild ride ahead!!!

2 Comments:

Blogger Intaki said...

Ecuadorians use a racist term 'longo' or something like that when referring to people of mixed race, or other races. It's a term like ne'er-do-well, I think.

10:03 AM  
Blogger Intaki said...

All I know about Nazi sympathies in Argentina is that there are still skinhead communities there.

7:08 AM  

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